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	the non-payment of TDS by an assessee entails disallowance of the expenditure.In a case , where the receipient already paid tax and filed its return, the  TDS liability is abated u/s.191 Whether the disallowance u/s.40(ia)is still applicable because  during the relevant previous year there existed liability to make TDS.That once the payee paid the tax and there is no need for making TDS as per the sec.191,it must satisfy the requirement of sec.40(ia).In other words , there is no separte liabiity to make TDS  u/s.40(ia).This provision needs elaboration and the opinion of my learned brethern and  any judgments sofar may please be posted at the earliest.
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	c.sai prasad.
	
	addition on 24,11.2008
	
	Sec.40a(ia) doesnot disallow the corresponding expenditure but provides that if the TDS is paid in the subsequent years,exp.would be allowed in that subsequent year.Therefore,it implies that where the payee didnot pay tax and the liability to make TDS remians on the payer,it must be paid though in a subsequent year in order to get deduction.Otherwise,making TDS  where payee already paid directly would  amount to paying tax twice and it is not intended.It looks unconvincing that even if payee had  already paid tax, the payer in order to get deduction must make another payment of TDS in favour of the payee.This needs to be kept in view in evaluating the issue.
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