Easy Office
LCI Learning

CA final SFM doubts

Page no : 2

Rahul (Chartered Accountnat CS)   (1580 Points)
Replied 23 August 2013

as far as second doubt is concerned

Yes the question states both the fixing date and reference rate at the same time...

Yup the same is confusing

 

But ya one thing is pretty much clear that a 6x9 fra means that we will recieve 100cr after 6 months that will be in surplus for 3 months

And we also know rthat reference rate means rate prevailing 2 days prior to the date of reciept of 100cr i.e.  the rate prevailing after 6 mths

So we may conclude dat question has given rates of MIBOR prevailing after 6 mths

since the funds will be in surplus for 3 mths

we will use 3 mth forward rate

 

regards

rahul

1 Like


Siddharth Jain (None) (114 Points)
Replied 26 August 2013

Thanks for your reply Rahul, however I am quite not satisfied even now. 

Would solicit replies to my doubt 1 and 2. 

 

Doubt 3

Refer Q29 in Practice Manual for SFM. Link https://220.227.161.86/21578sm_sfm_finalnewvol2_cp13.pdf

Why has the valuation of the terminal value of cash flows for been done at (375.32/(12%-9%)) instead of (12%-10%).

I feel it should be valued at 12%-10% because:

12% is the Ko

10% is the growth.

 

There is no such 9% rate except the Kd. Even then, why has the valuation of the terminal value of FCFF been done at 12%-9% instead of 12% - 10%???

 

Thanks,

Sid


Siddharth Jain (None) (114 Points)
Replied 29 August 2013

Doubt 4:

Presentation of Leasing Decisions

 

When the asset is taken by borrowing funds, and the discount rate is the post tax cost of debt.

Then do I need to show the repayment schedule seperately?

Or can I just say that the PV of the loan taken discounted at the post tax cost of debt is equal to the principal taken?

 

Please advise.


Siddharth Jain (None) (114 Points)
Replied 25 September 2013

awaiting reply...


vamshi (student) (5 Points)
Replied 05 June 2017

SFM supplementary problem doubt in financial services in india

Dear sir,

 

​I have a doubt in SFM problem,

 how 

​"​

cost of long term fund invested in debtors

​"​

 is calculated in solution image 

​I​

 mean Rs 943.8 crores and Rs 882.42 crores for recourse/non recourse options under fine bank proposal

thank u advance

 

 

​Regards,

 

vamshi

Audit Executive

S.H. Bhanadari & co

Begumpet, Hyderabad​


Attached File : 623103 20170605125336 new doc 2 1.jpg downloaded: 77 times



Vinay Dadhich (2 Points)
Replied 28 March 2019

Hello mam /sir my doubt is Closing Nav +dividend distribution -opening Nav =Return Is formula corrrct or not


Leave a reply

Your are not logged in . Please login to post replies

Click here to Login / Register  

Join CCI Pro


Subscribe to the latest topics :

Search Forum: