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985 Points
Posted on 07 October 2009
Sunilji,
I think the words used in the definition are"words of art " which have been used independently . It could fall under the "service fee " category . The extention of the definition which you have marked in red cannot be extended to service fees .
However you may be right , but in all cases we have not deducted TDS . Are u aware of any such case law which states that processing fees fall u/s 194J.We will have to check up if any processing fees was paid and loans were rejected . ( In most of the cases , we negotiate with the bank and dont pay processing fees until the loan is sanctioned ) However this could be a big issue .(We rely on Sc judgement 224 ITR 551 which defined interest as follows :-
In the circular issued by the Central Board of Direct Taxes, the concept of "interest" defined under section 2(28A) has been explained with the added Explanation as under (see [1976] 105 ITR (St.) 24) :
" The term 'interest' has been defined in new clause (28A) inserted in section 2 of the Income-tax Act with a view to removing doubts about the true character of fees or other charges paid in respect of moneys borrowed or in respect of the credit facilities which have not been utilised. The definition is very wide and covers interest payable in any manner in respect of loans, debts, deposits, claims and other similar rights or obligations. It also includes any service fees or other charges in respect of such loans, debts, deposits, etc., as also fees in the nature of commitment charges on unutilised portion of credit facilities. This definition will be applicable for all purposes of the Income-tax Act. "
In my opinion , the words are used independently , Hence TDS provisons dont apply u/s 194J , but apply u/s 194A