Chartered Accountant
221 Points
Joined February 2015
Hi Javed,
It is not subject to 40A(3) disallowance as it is not an expenditure in the first place.
Supporting-
Section 40A(1) provides that certain disallowances provided in Section 40A need to be considered on arriving at the "Income from business". Obviously while computing the income from business you will not consider the payment for purchase of property as the same is not a revenue expense.
Other matters-
There is legal no consequence for the PAYER as the amended 269SS or 269T effective from 01.06.2015 do cover only acceptance and REpayment and not payment as such.
However, the receiver will be in trouble unless the reciever is exempted by virtue of Explanation below Section 269SS.
Hope the avove was useful.
Regards,
CA HAriprasad.