CA-Final student
29 Points
Joined January 2011
Mr. Khanna,
The definition of capital asset excludes personal effects(not being jewellery, archaelogical collections, paintings, drawings, sculptures or any work of art) held by the assessee and hence jewellery is a capital asset. So when jewellery is sold it attracts Capital Gains tax.
Mr.Jalpesh,
As per Explanation to Sec 49(1), the previous owner of the capital asset means the last previous owner who acquired it by a mode other than those referred to in Sec 49(1). And hence, the previous owner will be the maternal grandmother in this case.
As per Sec 55(2), cost of acquisition in relation to the property which became the property of the assessee by any of the modes referred to in Sec 49(1) shall be the cost to the previous owner (maternal grandmother in this case) or FMV as on 1.4.1981 at the option of the assessee. (obviously whichever is higher).
As per Second proviso to Sec 48, where the capital gain arises from the transfer of a long term capital asset, cost of acquisition shall be substituted with Indexed Cost of Acquisition.
As per Explanation to Sec 48, Indexed Cost of Acquisition means the amount which bears to the cost of acquisition the same proportion as the Cost Inflation Index for the year in which the asset is transferred bears to the Cost Inflation Index "for the first year in which the asset was held by the ASSESSEE" or 1.4.81, which ever is later.
Hence, the relevant cost inflation index is the index of the year in which the asset was first held by the assessee.