My client has to pay RCM under Works contract and Supply of Man power. He is not paying the same to government. He has not paid to his vendor also. In his current assets he is showing input and in current liability he is showing his payable for more than 6 months. 1.As per ST provisions rule 3 comes to picture, now it has to be paid by Vendor only correct? 2.If he paid after 1-09-2014 can he avail the cenvat credit for the same. please solve me with this.
21 October 2014
1)Service provider responsibility is fixed to his part of service tax.in future service receiver will be asked to pay tax which is not paid on RCM services.He also have to pay interest on the same
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