Displaying Queries 1 - 10 of 78371 in 7838 pages
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suresh babu
asked On 19 June 2013 at 22:03
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Sir, on27/03/2013 the income tax department had issued notice to my mother under section 148 for income chargable to tax for the assement year 2006-07 has escaped within the meaning of section 147 of the income tax act.
In feb.2006 I and my 3 brothers had entered into a joint development agreement with a builder.as my elder brother was expired my mother was included in this agreement with out any share in the builtup area.till now my mother has no property in her name nor any income.the IT dept. has not issued notice to we 3 brothers till now.
please clarify if the notice is issued on us, is it valid after the lapse of 6 yrs.If the notice is issued what should we do.
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GIRISH SUDHAKAR PARWATKAR
asked On 19 June 2013 at 20:45
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IS IT POSSIBLE THAT THE PTEC APPLICATION CAN BE MODIFIED/EDITED FOR WRONG INFORMATION/DATE BOOKED AFTER ONLINE SUBMISSION OF APPLICATION BUT BEFORE THE APPOINTMENT WITH THE OFFICER FOR OBTAINING CERTIFICATE OR A FRESH APPLICATION CAN BE DONE . PLEASE GUIDE ME.
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Anonymous
asked On 19 June 2013 at 20:44
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is new audit report format applicable to co-op hsg society audit?
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mayur rajesh gadhia
asked On 19 June 2013 at 19:40
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Dear Experts, I wish to know the provisions of Audit of Company (under Liquidation). To put it specifically, I wish to know “whether a company, whose liquidation has commenced (by filing a Petition in the Hon’ble High Court) and a Provisional Liquidator is duly appointed, has to continue to get its accounts audited during the pendency of the said petition?” Further, after some years, if the winding-up order is passed by the Hon’ble High Court, and the Provisional Liquidator duly becomes the Official Liquidator, is the company required to get its accounts audited as it was required to (prior to liquidation)? My view is that, “a company is required to get its accounts audited till the date of its winding-up order, and not thereafter, since the Official Liquidator takes charge of books, etc. everything.” Kindly correct my view, if it is wrong/ inconsistent by any means. It would be very kind if your reply is supported by respective provisions (sections, case-laws, etc.) to serve my ready reference. Your early reply in this regard would be highly appreciated. Thanking you in anticipation. Regards, Mayur R. Gadhia.
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Anonymous
asked On 19 June 2013 at 19:26
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WHY PROOF OF EXPORT IS REQUIRED WHO HAS TO ISSUE IT TO WHOM WHAT ARE THE CONSEQUENCES FOR NOT GIVING IT PLEASE GIVE ME CLEAR DETAIS FOR PROOF OF EXPORT
FOR MERCHANG EXPORTING BY MERCHANT EXPORTER FORM ARE-1 IS REQUIRED YES OR NO
IF MANUFACTURER UNDER EXCISE COVERAGE HAS TO FILE FORM ARE-1 FOR EXCISE DUTY FREE ITEM
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Shailesh Gediya
asked On 19 June 2013 at 19:13
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Dear Sir,
Plz provide me any Resolution regarding taking of OD limit against Fixed Deposit from SBI Bank.
Thanks in advance.
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Ramesh
asked On 19 June 2013 at 19:12
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Dear All,
Can anybody provide me MOA and AOA of a Pvt Ltd company dealing with trading of Optical lenses.
Thanks in advance
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KUNJ DESAI
asked On 19 June 2013 at 18:54
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If a private limited company is having its business of safe deposit vaults, then in which block of assets "Safe deposit vaults" depreciation would be counted and rate?
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sushant mahajan
asked On 19 June 2013 at 17:57
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If an Indian company is providing services to its Associated Enterprise(AE) in USA and the AE is using these services further to complete its contractual obligation to a client based in USA.
The AE adds 4% profit margin to what the Indian company charges from it and provides the service to client at such price.
Will the transfer price on the Indian company be such sale price of service inclusive of 4% profit margin set by AE or without it.
Ex:
Supply price by Indian Co. to AE =Rs. 100
Profit Margin 4% =Rs. 4
Value of service charged =Rs. 104 from client
Will the transfer price for the Indian company be Rs. 100 or Rs. 104?
Please reply. It's very urgent.
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sushant mahajan
asked On 19 June 2013 at 17:54
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If an Indian company is providing services to its Associated Enterprise(AE) in USA and the AE is using these services further to complete its contractual obligation to a client based in USA.
The AE adds 4% profit margin to what the Indian company charges from it and provides the service to client at such price.
Will the transfer price on the Indian company be such sale price of service inclusive of 4% profit margin set by AE or without it.
Ex:
Supply price by Indian Co. to AE =Rs. 100
Profit Margin 4% =Rs. 4
Value of service charged =Rs. 104 from client
Will the transfer price for the Indian company be Rs. 100 or Rs. 104?
Please reply. It's very urgent.
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