sir
if as a company we paid some exp. and bill issued in the name of company but these exp. should be born by a vendors co. of us so can i make a sales bill for that in the name of vendor co. ?
otherwise suggest the right treatment

Dear Experts,
1 The Stautory audit firm's staff staying in the hotel.
2 The company is remitting the amount to the hotel for their accomodations
3 The hotel raised the invoice in the name of the company.
4 Now how the company can account this expenses under which group?
5 What would be the ledger name for this transactions.

Paid advance for Software development(ERP) amounting to Rs.15,00,000 on 20/12/2023

Vendor raised the Invoice for the advance paid on 20/03/2024 along with GST

Software development expenses(Intangible asset a/c) dr 15,00,000
Input CGST 9% dr 1,35,000
Input SGST 9% dr 1,35,000
Party a/c cr 17,40,000
TDS for sec 194J(Technical Services@2%) cr 30,000

Is the above entry correct?

Hi,

If Retailer/Shopkeeper is generating bill as Capex Reimbursement to the Shopping Mall and put SAC code 995419, Rs. 45 Lakh +GST 18%.

On the above case, is TDS Applicable, if yes then under which Sec. and can Shopping Mall can take GST Input?

Kindly give your valuable suggestion on the same.

Thanks in Advance,
Sanoj

Dear,

How to make related party in tally in company A and B.

regards

Hello Experts,

We have a cost plus mark-up agreement signed for export of services with fully owned US entity and they have sent us some advance money to meet expenses of indian subsidiary. I have booked this received amount to DR Bank and CR Intercompany Payables Account. Previously it was booked to Unbilled Revenue by our book keeper and they still argue that it has to be booked Unbilled Revenue instead off Intercompany Payables Account. Can any experts clarify this?

Appreciate your help on this.

Amount paid to temporary marketing staffs towards their wages.

Should the expenses be booked under:

Salaries and wages

OR

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Dear Sir,

We are in Granite Manufacturing Company. As Finalisation Process we are valubing F.G. as 90% of sale value and Wip as 65% of sales Valu ..! Our F.g. is the goods ready for sale just waiting for approval. And our Wip always remains in 2 out of 7 process. Apart from above we normally sold Good in Fg in first. We are producing in terms of containers as 50 means we sold 10 to 20 of last month F.g and 15 containers from curent production ...! Kindly let me know if our valyation towards Wip and Fg is correct and if not How to Valye in this scenarios

Dear Experts
We are a pvt ltd Company and are Distributer/Channel Partners for industrial products. We have receievd a Purchase order asking to issue a single invoice for both supply of goods & supply of service. GST Rate for both supplY of goods & service is same i.e. 18% . I would like to know whether we can issue a single invoice for supply of goods & service and how to account for the same in the books ? Thanks in advance

Hi Sir/mam.

Please clarify on surrender of shares
If debentures of 1 lakh and debentures interest of 20k are existing in balance sheet
And total claim of debentures reduced to 50k,
how would i know which part is reduced to which extent.