I have procured a long term loan from foreign bank (Henceforth be called as "Bank A") at Libor 6months rate + premium and the principal is repayable at the end of 5 years. To avoid the interest risk and exchange rate risk, I enter into a swap agreement for interest with another bank (Henceforth be called as "Bank B") and determine a fixed amount of loan in INR withd a fixed interest rate. Under this agreement, I will be paying interest at fixed rate in INR to Bank B and Bank B shall make payments to Bank A in foreign currency. At the end of 5 years, I will repay the principal in INR to Bank B and Bank B shall pay the respective Foreign currency amount to Bank A. Hence all the settlements by us is in INR only. However the INR loan amount is determined with foreign loan as underlying item. So does this fall under the meaning of foreign currency transaction and the liability should be reinstated at closing rate at the end of each reporting period?
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