Good day,
I need to get a good understanding of the journals to be posted on movement of asset from investment property to PPE. For example, I have my building split 50-50 between investment property and PPE initially. I decide to carry my building at cost less accumulated depreciation, say ( $1m over 20 years resulting in amortization of $50,000 per annum). The investment property on the other hand, I decide to carry at fair value. Say $1m in year one.
After 5 years, the NBV of my building becomes $750,000 ($1m - (50,000 x 5)) and the fair value of my investment property becomes $3,000,000.
At this point I establish that my PPE element has moved up from 50% to 67% and my investment property has gone down to 33%.
I do know that I need to transfer to PPE, even though I am using the cost model, the fair value portion of the investment property.
Who can help me with the journals as I find this so confusing?


