Declaring self occupied house as deemed to be let out
Sunil Sharma (Associate Vice President) (60 Points)
07 January 2016Sunil Sharma (Associate Vice President) (60 Points)
07 January 2016
Tony John
(Chartered Accountant)
(6085 Points)
Replied 07 January 2016
When a person has occupied more than one house for his own residential purposes, only one house according to his choice is treated as self occupied and all other houses will be treated as 'deemed to be let out.'
SANAJAY KAPOOR
(cwa)
(45 Points)
Replied 08 January 2016
ONLY ONE CAN BE TREATREATED AS SELF OCCUPIED
Vishal Goel
(Chartered Accountant)
(1688 Points)
Replied 08 January 2016
Sunil Sharma
(Associate Vice President)
(60 Points)
Replied 09 January 2016
Thanks for the clarification that the second Self Occupied Property can be Deemed to be Let Out. So it is clear that the assessee can choose anyone as Self Occupied / Deemed to be Let Out. What will be the consequences if one of the house is let out in due course. Should the assessee now treat the two separately, one as Self Occupied and the other as Let out or can he continue with his chosen position of one as Self Occupied and One as Deemed to be Let Out.
Sunil Sharma
(Associate Vice President)
(60 Points)
Replied 09 January 2016
Thanks for the clarification that the second Self Occupied Property can be Deemed to be Let Out. So it is clear that the assessee can choose anyone as Self Occupied / Deemed to be Let Out. What will be the consequences if one of the house is let out in due course. Should the assessee now treat the two separately, one as Self Occupied and the other as Let out or can he continue with his chosen position of one as Self Occupied and One as Deemed to be Let Out.
Udaya Bhaskar K V
(1 Points)
Replied 28 January 2016
Hi, would you kindly clarify further on this please? I have the exact same situation. I have two house properties, one in my native place which is rented (lets call P1) and one in current place of work, which is self occupied (P2). P1 had less loan amount to begin with and is nearing closure (due to accelerated repayment) and therefore interest component is quite low now. P2 on the other hand is a recent acquisition hence has higher loan amount and higher interest outgo. A quick excel calculation shows that if I am allowed to reverse the statuses (self occupied / let out) I gain a substantial amount (around 10,000 for the year). Is this legally allowed? Won't it be wierd and won't I be questioned how I can claim to stay in city1 and work in city2 that are 800 km apart? Any other way around? I want to clarify that I don't want to break any law just for the sake of a few hundred rupees a month. It's pretty much like having pizza once.
Thanks,
Uday
Vishnu prasath
(Analyst)
(42 Points)
Replied 22 July 2016
This is the same case with me too. I want to know if I can consider the rented house as SOP and SOP as deemed to let out and caculate the tax accordingly?
Landmark Judgments: Important Provisions of the EPF & ESI Act interpreted by the Honorable Supreme Court of India