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Declaring self occupied house as deemed to be let out

Sunil Sharma (Associate Vice President) (55 Points)

07 January 2016

In case of ownership of two house properties, can an assessee declare self occupied house property as deemed to be let out when he is actually residing in only one property and the other is vacant. There is interest paid on self occupied house but no interest paid on vacant property

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8 Replies

Tony John (Chartered Accountant) (6085 Points)
Replied 07 January 2016

When a person has occupied more than one house for his own residential purposes, only one house according to his choice is treated as self occupied and all other houses will be treated as 'deemed to be let out.'

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SANAJAY KAPOOR (cwa) (45 Points)
Replied 08 January 2016

ONLY ONE CAN BE TREATREATED AS SELF OCCUPIED

Vishal Goel (Chartered Accountant) (1688 Points)
Replied 08 January 2016

Yes you can declared such house as deemed to be let out...

Sunil Sharma (Associate Vice President) (55 Points)
Replied 09 January 2016

Thanks for the clarification that the second Self Occupied Property can be Deemed to be Let Out. So it is clear that the assessee can choose anyone as Self Occupied / Deemed to be Let Out. What will be the consequences if one of the house is let out in due course. Should the assessee now treat the two separately, one as Self Occupied and the other as Let out or can he continue with his chosen position of one as Self Occupied and One as Deemed to be Let Out.

Sunil Sharma (Associate Vice President) (55 Points)
Replied 09 January 2016

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Udgam Koomar (Tax Technologist) (1949 Points)
Replied 10 January 2016

Let is be on actuals.

Udaya Bhaskar K V (1 Points)
Replied 28 January 2016

Hi, would you kindly clarify further on this please? I have the exact same situation. I have two house properties, one in my native place which is rented (lets call P1) and one in current place of work, which is self occupied (P2). P1 had less loan amount to begin with and is nearing closure (due to accelerated repayment) and therefore interest component is quite low now. P2 on the other hand is a recent acquisition hence has higher loan amount and higher interest outgo. A quick excel calculation shows that if I am allowed to reverse the statuses (self occupied / let out) I gain a substantial amount (around 10,000 for the year). Is this legally allowed? Won't it be wierd and won't I be questioned how I can claim to stay in city1 and work in city2 that are 800 km apart? Any other way around? I want to clarify that I don't want to break any law just for the sake of a few hundred rupees a month. It's pretty much like having pizza once.

Thanks,

Uday

Vishnu prasath (Analyst) (42 Points)
Replied 22 July 2016

This is the same case with me too. I want to know if I can consider the rented house as SOP and SOP as deemed to let out and caculate the tax accordingly?