First, the querist was refering to 94A only..not 194A...
lets see what exactly your transaction is. You take a loan from a bank for which interest is to be paid by you. However, you enter into an agreement with the builder and he pays the interest upto a certain date. So in essence all he is doing is taking over a liability on your behalf.
That is why it is an income. Take an example, till last year a lot of confusion prevailed as to whether gas subsidy will be taxable income or not. Only after govt clarified that such subsidy wont be taxed there was relief. Even gas subsidy was reimbursement in nature.
In your case, the pre-emi interest is to be aggergated and claimed as deduction under section 24b once the property is ready. Since someone else is bearing the accumulation, it is natural for it to be considered as income in your hands.
Now coming to section 2(28), isn't the whole argument is that builder will bear the interest cost? Once you agree that what builder is bearing is interest and that he is paying it on your behalf (only that he is routing it via your account as you are the borrower), it wont change the nature of transaction. Well the above is my interpretation
Further, whether you consider it as interest or not is relevant only for TDS purpose. With regards to your tax liability, What is not exempted as income and cannot be treated as capital receipt will be taxed. What is not covered under any other specific head of income, is taxed under section 56 covers all incomes that are not classified otherwise.
As I said, it is my interpretation. Good chance that there may be an alternative and equally stronger opinion for an alternative thought.