Displaying Queries 20 - 30 of 3640 in 364 pages
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divya
asked On 15 May 2013 at 11:45
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My question is that, Supposed Ms. X is stayed in USA a earned something but she wants to open a Proprietor concern in India and bank account also and transferred all the earned amount from USA to India bank Account. So in that case whether any FEMA compliances is applicable?
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Anonymous
asked On 15 May 2013 at 11:06
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Under Indian law, can development rights be mortgaged? There have been some case laws which states that development rights being interests arising out of immovable property and hence can be considered as immovable property. However I haven't come across any statute or case law which states that Development Rights of immovable property can be mortgaged.
Any insight into this?
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nilesh sharma
asked On 14 May 2013 at 14:28
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TO THE EXPERTS@
mr. x (resident) purchases shares of an unlisted indian public company from mr. y ( foreign national). now i know the compliance to file fc-trs within 60 days of receipt of funds.
but my quary is .. if mr. x is paying through a banking channel in parts, for example.. half of the funds on 15th may and rest on 15th of july . . where will the counting of 60 days ll start?
plz ans the question and give the supporting document or source of the answer as well..
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Rakesh Sharma
asked On 12 May 2013 at 16:28
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Sir,
I had purchased a plot of land in Bangalore in 2004. The plot was registered in the joint name of self and wife. Now, I wish to transfer the ownership to my son who is an unmarried adult so he can show it as a collateral to obtain a loan with which he wishes to purchase a flat. The value of this plot is likely to be around 25-30 Lakhs. The EMI for that loan will be paid my me due to son having financial difficulties presently.
Kindly advise: 1.Is this is good in law? 2. The procedure for transfer of ownership. 3. Can my son show that he is paying the EMI and derive IT benefit for himself if I transfer the EMI amount into his account every month or, will that be deemed as a gift and attract another tax?4. Is there a more elegant and legally acceptable method to engineer this without losing too much in tax as the asset was created by me to assist the child when required. Thanking you. Kirat Sharma
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Tirth :)
asked On 11 May 2013 at 22:14
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Ram sells a property to Shyam for `10,00,000 which is subject to mortgage to Mohan
for `20,00,000 and unpaid interest of `4,00,000. Stamp duty is payable on `34,00,000.
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Anonymous
asked On 11 May 2013 at 14:59
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Dear All,
Pls help me with this.
Pls help me with the procedure to transfer shares from a private limited company to a foreign company as per companies act. Any specific procedure to be followed?
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Anonymous
asked On 11 May 2013 at 12:48
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According to Rajasthan co operartive societies act if any zonal manager is working on agency basis then he can get incentive or not from society?
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sanjog
asked On 10 May 2013 at 19:19
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Sir/ma'am
Does notarisation of document/agreement make the same enforceable in the court of law?
Suppose I borrow a loan of Rs.50000 from a person and promise him to repay the same in 24 monthly installments through a letter, and get this letter notarised. Will this make the said document an even stronger evidence than a simple letter?
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Debashis Ghosh
asked On 10 May 2013 at 18:19
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A public registered company dealing with a gov.company for supply their product.a dispute arising regarding supply coal.these companies share holders are same.if their register will cancelled. What will be fate of shareholders and directors?please help me to give solution
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CA Abhishek Singh
asked On 10 May 2013 at 07:24
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Hello everyone,
one of my clint has purchased a residential house property for 20 lacs. he made payment of Rs.10 lacs at the time of registeration on 01/03/2013 and bal pmt was to made by housing loan. Time limit for bal payment was not mentioned in the deed.
However his loan application was rejected from two banks and 2 months wasted ( due to agents faults). Now his third hsg loan is in process and it will take 10-15 days.
The transferor is harrasing him like anything. He has given him 2 days time otherwise he wl have to pay interest @ 7% p.m.(not mentioned in sale deed) and he has also told that he may sell the property to someone else.
My client is very simple person and has intention to pay.
My question :
1. can he charge 7% int pm ( not mentioned inthe agreement)
2. can he sell the property (becoz legally my client is the owern ?
3. What are the rights of the owner in such a situtation ?
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